Although this question could be interpreted in a number of ways, I believe the best answer to be the difference between cause and effect. Are the witches truly revealing the future effect of a true prophesy in Act I when they say, "Hail to thee, Thane of Glamis! . . . Thane of Cawdor! . . . that shalt be King hereafter!"? Perhaps the witches are actually the cause of the whole problem. If they hadn't revealed the prophesy (and if Macbeth hadn't written that pesky letter asking his wife for advice about it), it is almost certain that Macbeth wouldn't even have entertained the notion of killing Duncan more than just a passing thought, especially when one considers the number of times Macbeth falters in his goal. Macbeth starts to hear and see things (like floating daggers, for example). He even lists in a long soliloquy the reasons why he shouldn't kill Duncan! Perhaps the key is in one of the witches' first statements: "Fair is foul, and foul is fair." What is truly exciting is that it can be argued either way.
Subscribe to:
Post Comments (Atom)
What is the main function of the fool in "King Lear"? What is the secondly function?
The fool as a character is confusing, but part of this is the difference between the 1600s and today, as well as the difference in place. If...
-
"Anthem (1938) is a science fiction novelette of a future primitive society in which the word "I" is forbidden. Rand's po...
-
It is significant that Ray Bradbury's exposition juxtaposes the character of Montag with Clarisse because the marked contrast alerts the...
-
He is in the middle of the marketplace where he and his aunt are walking "through the flaring streets, jostled by drunken men and barga...
No comments:
Post a Comment